CCIE Cisco

Cisco 350-020 Exam, Sale Best Cisco 350-020 Practice Are The Best Materials

Where to find the new Cisco 350-020 exam questions to pass the exam easily? Now,Flydumps has publised the new version of Apple 9L0-614 exam dumps with new added exam questions.Flydumps offer the latest Cisco 350-020 PDF and VCE dumps with New Version VCE Player for free download, and the new Cisco 350-020 practice tests ensure your exam 100% pass.

QUESTION 56
How can traffic be restored if a failure results in loss of working traffic only in a 4F BLSR?
A. Path switching
B. Span switching
C. Ring switching
D. Label switching
E. Node switching

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
What is the effective bandwidth of a 6 node, four-fiber OC-48 BLSR ring if all the traffic on the ring is homed back to one node (hub-and-spoke) without Protection Channel Access (PCA)?
A. STS-24
B. STS-48
C. STS-96
D. STS-192

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Exhibit:

In the figure, what IP address would you assign to a desktop connected to the TCC port on node E . Would a static route be needed to allow access to other nodes, and in which node would you install it?
A. Any Pingable IP address from Telnet session in Site Bravo SWT 1, No static route needed to allow access to other nodes.
B. 192.168.1.101/24, Yes in Node E, local subnet pointed to 192.168.1.254.
C. 192.168.1.152/24, No Static route needed to allow access to other nodes.
D. 192.168.1.14/24, No Static route needed to allow access to other nodes.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
To set the SONET overhead bytes in the frame header to meet a specific standards requirement or to ensure interoperability with another vendor’s equipment, use what configuration command line?
A. pos flag in the global
B. pos flag in the interface
C. pos flag-type in the global
D. pos flag-type in the interface

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60
Which describe the benefits that FICON has over ESCON?
A. Increased channel capacity due to new architecture
B. Increased channel capacity due to faster physical link rates
C. Increased channel capacity due to Upper Level Protocol Mapping
D. Increased channel capacity due to improved SCSI header re-write algorithms
E. FICON offers no significant advantage over ESCON

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 61
What is the power at the output ports of a 90%-10% Tee coupler that has an 80 m W light source and 1 dB of excess loss?
A. 57.2 m W and 6.3 m W
B. 72 m W and 8 m W
C. 90.6 m W 10.2 m W
D. 60.3 m W 3.2 m W

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
In order to avoid loops when sending routing updates, what is the correct technique to prevent a network from being forwarded on the same interface it is learned?
A. Poison Reverse
B. The use of access-lists used with distribute-list
C. Split Horizon
D. This is not a problem, since this cannot happen.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
ML-series QoS handling of multicast and broadcast traffic involves:
A. Putting all multicast and broadcast traffic in its own queue and giving it priority over other traffic.
B. Putting multicast and broadcast traffic in its own queue and allocating a 10% port bandwidth guarantee.
C. Configuration using the “bandwidth” command allowing QoS guarantees for multicast and broadcast traffic.
D. All multicast and broadcast being treated as best effort (BE) traffic.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 64
What is an active filter?
A. Prisms
B. Dielectric thin film interface filter
C. Diffraction grating
D. Semi-conductor filter
E. Bragg Grating
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
For SONET Ring switching, the 50ms switch time applies to:
A. 50 ms, not including detection time
B. For rings smaller than 100km
C. For rings smaller than 2000km
D. Up to 64 nodes
E. Up to 254 nodes

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
What feature of the spatial reuse protocol used in DPT allows for bandwidth reuse on the ring?
A. Fairness algorithm
B. Token controlled access
C. Packet destination stripping
D. Automatic topology discovery
E. Multicast origination stripping

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
What part of the SONET frame is used to overcome the need to buffer information in order to have fixed information payloads?
A. Section Overhead
B. Line Overhead
C. Pointers
D. Path Overhead
E. H2 and STS-1

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
The total capacity of a 2F MS-SPRing network of N nodes operating as MS-SPRing nodes operating at a ring speed of STM-4 in VC4 units is: (NOTE: PT=Pass Through traffic)
A. 2 x N – PT
B. 4 x N – PT
C. 8 x N – PT
D. Depends on the traffic pattern
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
In Fiber optic communication systems, a pulse is said to be chirped if its carrier frequency changes with:
A. Distance
B. Time
C. Group Delay
D. Velocity
E. Wavelength

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
With CGMP enabled, which are unique about the following MAC address range: 01-00-5E-00-00-00 to 01-00-5E-00-00-FF? (multiple answer)
A. CGMP does not prune those MAC addresses.
B. They contain the CGMP Multicast addresses for the IGMP Leaves and IGMP Queries.
C. CGMP filters those MAC addresses when they arrive at the processor
D. They are the reserved IP addresses of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 for forwarding local IP multicast traffic in a single Layer 3 hop.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 71
What is NOT a characteristic of Direct attached Storage (DAS)?
A. High speed
B. Low latency
C. Limited distance
D. Re-routable protection

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
On each LAN segment with multiple bridges running spanning tree, the bridge closest to the:
A. Designated bridge is selected as root bridge
B. Root bridge is selected as designated bridge
C. Root bridge is not selected as designated bridge
D. Designated bridge is not selected as root bridge

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 73
What part of the SONET overhead would an Add/ Drop Multiplexer read/write?
A. Section Overhead
B. Information Payload
C. Path Overhead
D. Line Overhead
E. Does not read the SONET frame

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 74
What condition is NOT a valid criterion for initiating a BLSR protection switch?
A. Reception of an AIS (all 1’s) signal
B. High path bit-error-rate (BER) indicated in the B3 byte
C. Loss-of-frame (LOF) alarm
D. Request for a line switch in the K1 byte
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
The TCP PUSH flag indicates:
A. The data in the TCP receive buffer should be sent to the application listening to this TCP connection without waiting for further data.
B. Any data being buffered by routers between the source and destination for this connection should be sent immediately.
C. The sender should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
D. This session is about to end.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 76
The ML-series Ethernet card provides up to how many active 802.1Q in Q instances per card?
A. 512
B. 4095
C. 255
D. 1024

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
What is an Inter Switch Link (ISL)?
A. A protocol to interconnect switches across ATM only
B. A protocol to interconnect switches across FDDI only
C. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches
D. A Cisco proprietary protocol for interconnecting multiple switches
E. An IEEE protocol to interconnect multiple switches across Fast Ethernet

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 78
Of the four types of SONET transmission equipment, what performs the 3R (Refresh/ Re-amplify, Reshape, Retime) function?
A. Path Terminating Equipment
B. SONET Terminating Equipment
C. Regenerator
D. Add/Drop Multiplexer
E. Digital Cross-Connect System
F. Line Multiplexing Equipment
G. Post/PreAmplifier
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
In Frame Relay, the FECN bit is set by:
A. The Frame Relay network, to inform the DTE receiving the frame that congestion was experienced in the path from source to destination
B. The Frame Relay network, in frames traveling in the opposite direction from those frames that encountered congestion
C. The receiving DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back
D. The sending DTE, to inform the Frame Relay network that it is overloaded and that the switch should throttle back
E. Any device that uses an extended DLCI address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
Exhibit: The network shown supports Synchronous Status Messaging (SSM), which byte supplied by the ADM at Site B in both directions in the section overhead is used for transporting SSM messages?

A. S1
B. J1
C. K2
D. Z1
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 81
What is the transmission limitation on a single 1310 nm signal, at OC-192 bit-rate, over certified SMF-28 fiber using no dispersion compensation?
A. Four-wave mixing
B. Polarization-mode dispersion
C. Chromatic dispersion
D. Attenuation

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
In SDH an AU-4 unit is formed by:
A. Adding a C12 to its path overhead
B. Adding a VC4 to a VC4 pointer
C. Multiplexing TU12s
D. Combining a VC3 and its VC3 pointer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
A router is set up to redistribute routing updates from OSPF to RIP. What answer best describes issues the network administrator needs to be aware of?
A. Split Horizon, Poison Reverse, Holddown
B. Slow convergence, limited hop-count metric, lack of network mask information, periodic broadcasts
C. None, OSPF is a link-state routing protocol which overcomes issues found in RIP.
D. Difference in metrics (e.g. hops vs. cost), subnet mask allocation/addressing (e.g. VLSM vs. fixed subnet mask length), routing protocol summarization (e.g. network boundaries)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which three are types of payloads carried by path signal label byte C2?
A. 0x16 scrambled POS
B. 0x13 ATM
C. 0x13 unscrambled POS
D. 0xCF scrambled POS
E. 0xCF unscrambled POS

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 85
How has the MDS 9000 been engineered to promote the use of DWDM for SAN extension?
A. The MDS 9000 has eliminated “Fibre Channel Droop” through proxy acknowledgements of frame arrivals.
B. The MDS 9000 has implemented buffer to buffer credits per port on the 16 port line card to allow for long distances.
C. The effects of Fibre Channel Droop are exaggerated and by using light amplification can be nullified.
D. DWDM has increased available lamdas in order to simultaneously send data on a second lamda, thereby eliminating fibre channel droop.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 86
The configuration register does NOT retain settings for:
A. An enabled ‘Break’ key
B. The console baud rate
C. The boot method
D. An enabled AUX port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
Exhibit: The graph represents optical signal power versus wavelength measurement from 1550nm to 1560nm. The spectral characteristic in the 1558nm to 1559nm range is commonly known as:

A. Noise floor
B. High dispersion region
C. Passband
D. Gain band
E. Attenuation band

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
What statement about DCC tunneling in the ONS 15454 is true?
A. Only the first STS frame in any OC-n signal is used for tunneling.
B. For security reasons, the 15454 randomly assigns an STS frame from within any OC-n signal to be used for tunneling.
C. A different STS frame is used on each section of the ring, to prevent overlap or conflict on the protection path.
D. Only the last STS frame in any OC-n signal is used for tunneling (this feature is also used as a bit rate indicator).

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 89
The Gigabit Ethernet Transponder mode on the G-series card provides:
A. Mapping of a single line-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto individual CWDM or DWDM line-side wavelengths, requiring cross connect capacity.
B. Mapping of up to 2 line-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto individual CWDM or DWDM line-side wavelengths without requiring cross connect capacity.
C. Mapping of up to 3 line-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto individual CWDM or DWDM line-side wavelengths, requiring cross connect capacity.
D. Mapping of up to 4 sub-rate Gigabit Ethernet interfaces onto two individual CWDM or DWDM line side wavelengths without requiring cross connect capacity.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90
In SDH the function of the K1-K2 bytes is to:
A. Specify the level of synchronization of the signal
B. Provide a 64kbit/s voice channel for communication between multiplexers
C. Provide multiplexer section error monitoring using bit interleaved parity
D. Provide automatic protection switching signaling between two MSTEs

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 91
Exhibit:

If a router had the three routes listed, which one of the routes would forward a packet destined for 10.1.1.1?
A. 10.1.0.0/16 through EIGRP, because EIGRP routes are always preferred over OSPF or static routes.
B. 10.1.0.0/16 static, because static routes are always preferred over OSPF or EIGRP routes.
C. 10.1.1.0/24 through OSPF because the route with the longest prefix is always chosen.
D. Whichever route appears in the routing table first.
E. The router will load share between the 10.1.0.0/16 route through EIGRP and the 10.1.0.0/16 static route.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 92
Exhibit:

The graph represents optical signal power versus wavelength measurement from 1550nm to 1560nm.
What is the worst case optical signal-to-noise ratio (OSNR) of Channel 1 at 0.5nm away from the peak?

A. 21dB
B. 24dB
C. 27dB
D. 30dB
E. 33dB
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 93
Exhibit: The exhibit shows OC-12 POS connections across various transport media. Which are correct timing configurations for 7600 interfaces (A) and (B)? (Note: connection between routers B and C is set to internal timing.)

A. Line
B. Internal
C. External
D. Looped
E. Internal and external

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 94
Using the ITU-T channel plan recommendation defined in G.692, if one of the channels has a frequency of 196.10THz (equivalent to 1528.77nm), then what is the wavelength of the next lower frequency based on a 50GHz channel plan?
A. 1527.99nm
B. 1528.38nm
C. 1529.16nm
D. 1529.55nm
E. 1529.94nm
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Exhibit: In a customer access ring environment, what type of transport architecture is best suited for creating an OC-12 RPR ring with 4 Cisco 12000 nodes?

A. It depends upon the traffic flow.
B. Meshed fiber with DWDM
C. SONET OC-12 2F-BLSR ring
D. SONET OC-12 2F-UPSR ring
E. Hub and spoke fiber with DWDM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 96
Exhibit: With a router connected to node E, and a laptop connected to node C, in what node would you put a static route to access this network from an external IP network?

A. None. A static route is only required when OSPF is disabled on the DCC and each node is a on a different subnet.
B. In Node E
C. In Node B
D. In Nodes B and D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
What do directly modulated transponders vary to the laser in order to transmit an optical signal?
A. Voltage
B. Resistance
C. Current
D. Output signal
E. Temperature
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
What is the difference in power at the input and the output of the device under test?
A. Cross Talk
B. Return Loss
C. Insertion Loss
D. Passband
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 99
Which three are examples of a non-linear effect? (Choose Three)
A. Self-phase modulation
B. Four-wave mixing
C. Chromatic dispersion
D. Stimulated Brillioun Scattering
E. Attenuation

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 100
Exhibit:

Routers CK5 and CK6 are running HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol). Router CK5 has a higher priority, and both routers have standby preempt configured. Since Router CK5 is normally the active router, what IP address should Host G use for its default gateway?
A. 10.1.3.1
B. Router CK5 ‘s IP address, since it is normally active; Router CK6 will take over Router CK5 ‘s address if it fails.
C. Router CK6 ‘s IP address; the active router will take over the standby router’s IP address until it fails
D. The virtual address configured when enabling HSRP
E. The virtual address assigned by HSRP; this address is dependent on the group number configured

Correct Answer: D

When selecting Cisco 350-020 practice test, you are buying Passcert high quality Cisco 642-501 products obtainable through the web today. Pass4itSure Cisco 350-020 practice test are recent and updated on regular basis, giving you with the highest Cisco 350-020 exam standard. Start your way to Cisco 350-020 success by purchasing Passcert high quality Cisco 350-020 practice test.

Welcome to download the newest pass4itsure 350-020 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/350-020.html

microdess
We are a team that focuses on tutoring Microsoft series certification exams and is committed to providing efficient and practical learning resources and exam preparation support to candidates. As Microsoft series certifications such as Azure, Microsoft 365, Power Platform, Windows, and Graph become more and more popular, we know the importance of these certifications for personal career development and corporate competitiveness. Therefore, we rely on the Pass4itsure platform to actively collect the latest and most comprehensive examination questions to provide candidates with the latest and most accurate preparation materials. MICROSOFT-TECHNET not only provides the latest exam questions, but also allows candidates to find the required learning materials more conveniently and efficiently through detailed organization and classification. Our materials include a large number of mock test questions and detailed analysis to help candidates deeply understand the test content and master the answering skills, so as to easily cope with the test. In addition, we have also specially launched exam preparation materials in PDF format to facilitate candidates to study and review anytime and anywhere. It not only contains detailed analysis of exam questions, but also provides targeted study suggestions and preparation techniques so that candidates can prepare more efficiently. We know that preparing for exams is not just about memorizing knowledge points, but also requires mastering the correct methods and techniques. Therefore, we also provide a series of simulation questions so that candidates can experience the real examination environment in the simulation examination and better adapt to the examination rhythm and atmosphere. These simulation questions can not only help candidates test their preparation results, but also help candidates discover their own shortcomings and further improve their preparation plans. In short, our team always adheres to the needs of candidates as the guide and provides comprehensive, efficient and practical test preparation support to candidates. We believe that with our help, more and more candidates will be able to successfully pass the Microsoft series certification exams and realize their career dreams.