What’s new in the Cisco 200-355 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (200-355 WIFUND) exam is a 90 minutes (60-70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Wireless certification. The most effective Cisco 200-355 dumps CCNA Wireless practice test video study guaranteed success. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 200-355 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 200-355 exam.
Cisco 200-355 WIFUND Exam focuses on knowledge and experts to explain the principles of RF mathematics, Describe usable channel and power combination and Describe physical infrastructure connections. Students who complete https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-355.html dumps WIFUND may get Cisco Certified Network Associative Wireless Certification.
[2017-December-Version Pass4itsure 200-355 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUkUwT0lYclNxbFU
[2017-December-Version Pass4itsure 200-310 Dumps From Google Drive]: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWajNRNzNfaDllX3M
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to connect to the GUI of a WLC with interfaces as shown. Which IP address should the network administrator use?
A. 192.168.0.2
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.2.2
D. 192.168.3.2
E. 192.168.4.2
200-355 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You are designing a wireless network in a medical facility. Which three areas are bad locations in which to install a wireless access point? (Choose three.)
A. in front of the elevators doors
B. in the hallways
C. next to the electrical room
D. inside offices
E. near medical imaging devices
F. in the lobby
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
Which two features are available in the Cisco WCS Plus license over the base license? (Choose two.)
A. ad hoc rogue detection
B. high availability between two Cisco WCS stations
C. mobility service engine management
D. auto discovery and containment or notification of rogue APs
E. client location to the nearest AP
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
What suite of algorithms results in slower connection rates when using 802.11N technology?
A. WPA2
B. CCMP
C. TKIP
D. AES
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which statement correctly describes the procedure for a lightweight AP to successfully establish a connection to a controller?
A. The AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.
B. The AP sends its certificate to the controller. The AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid.
C. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the controller certificate as valid.
D. The AP sends its certificate to the RADIUS server. The AP then authenticates the RADIUS certificate as valid.
E. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the RADIUS server.
F. The AP authenticates the received RADIUS server certificate as valid. The AP then sends its certificate to the controller.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A network engineer in the GUI of WCS version 7 wants to add an access point to a map. Where can this command be found within the drop-down menu?
A. Monitor andgt; Maps
B. Reports andgt; Maps
C. Monitor andgt; Network Summary
D. Configure andgt; Maps
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
QUESTION 14 You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 15 What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches? (Choose three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
200-355 exam Answer: BCE
QUESTION 16 What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C
QUESTION 17 Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of switches and ISLs required?
A. star
B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
200-355 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 18 What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19 When planning a NAS solution, which two sub-processes are associated with NAS Service Capacity Management? (Choose two.)
A. Define future requirements.
B. Manage peak demand for NAS services.
C. Establish IOPS monitoring and exception thresholds.
D. Run reports on the storage and network utilization and IOPS of components.
200-355 pdf Answer: BC
QUESTION 20 When implementing a high performance NAS solution you must check for which two items? (Choose two.)
A. Ensure the network is full duplex.
B. Ensure that hosts have 100Mb NICs.
C. Ensure the network is at least 100Mb.
D. Ensure routers are configured for OSPF.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 21 A customer is using host based virtualization to mirror critical data between two vendors disk arrays. Which two scenarios are true? (Choose two)
A. The host can use the same HBA to connect to both arrays
B. The customer can adhere to either vendors SAN design rules
C. The customer must adhere to both vendors SAN design rules
D. The host must use different HBAs with different firmware to connect to each array
200-355 vce Answer: CD
QUESTION 22 A customer has a disk subsystem with eight ports. Each port delivers 200 MB/s. The customer wants a solution designed which allows access from 32 servers with no single point of failure. Which number of HBAs and the associated throughput, provide server access to the disk subsystem?
A. 16 HBAs, 75 MB/s
B. 32 HBAs, 90 MB/s
C. 64 HBAs, 25 MB/s
D. 64 HBAs, 50 MB/s
Answer: C
QUESTION 23 A customer has a terabyte database and is required to back up the data daily. The SLA has allotted 6 hours for completion of the backup from 7:00 P.M. until 1:00 A.M. However, the customer has a tape library with only five SDLT tape devices running at native speeds of 40 GB/hour. Which two should you do to successfully meet the expected SLA requirements? (Choose two.)
A. interleave data streams
B. enable server-based compression
C. use multiple data streams across multiple devices
D. prioritize the schedule to launch during periods of greatest inactivity
200-355 exam Answer: AC
QUESTION NO: 24
When deciding on the network bandwidth needed to connect front ends to an SAP system (using a
WAN connection), you should consider which of the following? (Choose three.)
A. The number of users connecting using this line.
B. Using SAP’s advanced online data compression technology (SAP ODCT) to minimize the network load. The software needed for this feature is sold separately.
C. The volume of “non-SAP-related” traffic (for example, office documents) using the same connection.
D. It might be useful to switch on the “Low speed connection” flag for the remote connections.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 25
SAP Solution Manager 4.0 can use an SLD (System Landscape Directory). Which statements are true for the purpose of the SLD?
A. SLD is only available with the shipment of SAP NetWeaver Process Integration (PI).
B. SLD is the landscape-wide information provider for system landscape data and acts as a foundation of many SAP applications.
C. SLD is a Java application. Therefore, ABAP applications cannot make use of the information provided by the SLD.
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is accessed. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
B. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the SAP system) of the user calling help.
C. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP system from which help is being called.
D. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the SAP system from which help is being called.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of the following options are available as global settings when setting the ‘System change option’ in SAP Systems (transaction SE06)? (Choose two.)
A. Modifiable
B. Repaired objects modifiable
C. An option to allow changes to Repository and client-independent customizing object
D. Original objects modifiable
E. Not modifiable
200-355 pdf Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 28
Regarding the architecture of the SAP NetWeaver AS, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Central Services Instance of the SAP NetWeaver AS Java is only needed in a pure SAP NetWeaver AS Java (without SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP) installation.
B. The Java work processes are controlled by a dispatcher.
C. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP can communicate with each other.
D. SAP NetWeaver AS Java and SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP use different database schemas.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of following is true for an SAP system with an Oracle database? ORACLE_HOME is …
A. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
B. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
C. …a system environment variable defined on the Oracle database server only.
D. …a user environment variable defined on the Oracle database server and each SAP application server.
200-355 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following statements is correct regarding online Oracle database backups?
A. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
B. The database does not write to online redo log files during online backups.
C. Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.
D. A complete online backup consists of tablespace data files and the control file, all of which are necessary for restoring the database to a consistent state.
E. Users may only read data and may not enter data while the backup is running.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Where can you find details on the memory consumption of the integrated ITS?
A. Using the ICF service /sap/moni/its/mem
B. In the SAP system, using transaction/report SITSPMON
C. On operating system level, using the command “its -mem”
D. In the SAP system, using transaction SMICM
200-355 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following statements regarding the functions offered by CCMS-based monitoring are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to monitor more than one SAP system by using the functions offered by CCMS monitoring.
B. Correctly configured threshold values to be used for monitoring purposes can be switched by using operation modes.
C. You need a special key (generated within SAP Solution Manager) to create your own monitor definitions in transaction RZ20.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following statements regarding the transaction RZ10 are true? (Choose two.)
A. When you use the save button in RZ10 and activate the profile, it will be written immediately to the operating system level.
B. The default profile cannot be maintained using transaction RZ10.
C. The maintained parameters will take effect immediately after the profile is activated in the RZ10.
D. You can compare the profile file on the operating system with the profile in the database.
200-355 pdf Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 34
In the MOUNT mode of an Oracle instance, the administrator can do which of the following? (Choose two.)
A. Change the ARCHIVELOG mode of the database.
B. Perform a media recovery.
C. Access the Oracle DBA_* views in tablespace SYSTEM.
D. Recreate the missing control file.
Answer: A,B
The Cisco Certified Network Associative Wireless Certification covers the Cisco Wireless Networking Technology topics. The Cisco 200-355 dumps Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals Exam allows students to understand and realize the benefits of Certification Area. “Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals”, also known as 200-355 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Pass4itsure 200-355 dumps exam questions answers are updated (421 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-355.html dumps is CCNA Wireless.
